Rediff.com |  Feedback  
You are here: » Rediff Home » Discussion Boards » Permalink
  
View : Single Message | Complete Thread | Read complete Discussion
@ Ramsubbu
by ems nnn on Oct 06, 2007 02:02 PM   Permalink | Hide replies

      
@ Ramsubbu
by ems nnn on Oct 06, 2007 01:59 PM | Hide replies

Quickly ;-) Yajur veda is of two type Krishna and sukla.
Krishna Yajur veda Tythireeya samhita has 48 modules.
One module is Sree Rudram another one is Chamakoottam (chamakam) both dedicated to Lord Shiva.
8th Anuvaka of Sree Rudram 10th line says,
Namas"Shivayacha" Shivatarayacha.... This clearly proves the word Shiva is there in Vedas and is Vedic God.
The Induz script is a script??? historians disagree?
If yes is it pictographic or phoenetic??? historians disagree !!!!!
Anyway it is NOT Brahmi dear as u say !!!! Induz script was totally lost (so say historians), then came Persians around 500 BCE who introduced Aramaic script.
It was Brahmins who invented first Kharoshti and then Brahmi script based on this Aramaic one. Brahmi script invented by Aryan Brahmins is the mother of all scripts incl Devanagiri(modern Hindi) and Tamil script too.
Buddha and Mahavira were Kshatriyas and Aryans and lived only 2500 years ago. They do NOT predate Vedas.
Yes Jainism was there before Mahavira's times i agree.
It would be nice if u donot comment on history and Vedas if u do not know about them

    Forward  |  Report abuse
  RE:@ Ramsubbu
by Balu Anand on Oct 08, 2007 12:16 PM   Permalink
Aren't you jumping to conclusions yourself? Please prove first that there was indeed an Aryan Invasion into India and that the time of Buddha was only 500 BCE. Buddha's real time as per Hindu, Buddhist and Chinese literature is atleast 1600 BCE

   Forward   |   Report abuse
  RE:@ Ramsubbu
by Ramasubbu on Oct 10, 2007 12:46 PM   Permalink
If Ram and Sita used Sanskrit as their mother tongue, the probably they existed only 2000 years ago.

   Forward   |   Report abuse
  RE:RE:@ Ramsubbu
by Ramasubbu on Oct 11, 2007 03:21 AM   Permalink
Aryan invasion is proven. because before pre vedic era, there was no vedic or hindu god existed in harappan civilization. More over in south india vedic influece came only after pallava kings after 400A.D. THAT IS THE REASON MOST OF SOUTH INDIAN GODS ARE NOT MATCHING ANYWHERE IN HINDUISM. INFACT SOUTH INDIANS TEMPLES WERE FORCIBLY CONVERTED TO VEDIC GODS USING AVATARISATION. DO ANY VEDIC EPIC TALK ABOUT LORD VENKATESHWARA, VARDAPERMAL , MURUGAR, MEENAKSHI OR KAMAKSHI. ?

VEDIC BRAHMINS DID ALL THE ATTEMPTS TO CONTROL SOUTH INDIAN TEMPLE AND CONVERT THEM TO THEIR DESIRE. REFER TO SHANKARACHARYA'S BHAKTI MOVEMENT WHEN THOUSANDS OF DRAVIDS WERE MASS MURDERED IN 800 A.D.

CAN SOME ONE TELL ME HOW SOUTH INDIAN TEMPLES , DRAVID TEMPLES BECAME VEDIC? MOREOVER JAINISM EXISTS FULLY IN SOUTH INDIA TILL 400A.D ONLY AFTER THAT JAINISM STARTED DECLINING. SAME JAIN GOD AND SAME BRAHMI SCRIPT WERE PREVALENT IN HARAPPAN VALLEY.

HOWEVER VEDIC PAINTING HAS BEEN ATTEMPTED TIME TO TIME. MOREOVER SAIVISM WAS NOT PART OF HINDUISM TILL THEN, SIVA WAS NOT PART OF HINDUISM. EARLIER VEDA HAS NO MENTION OF SIVA. LATER SIVA WAS INCORPORATED BY BRAHMINS TO TAKE CONTROL OF SYSTM, THEN THEY TOOK OVER JAIN TEMPLES AND WANTED TO CONTROL THEIR RELIGION. THEY TOOK MANY LITERATURE AND CONVERTED TO SUIT THEIR REQUIREMENT. NO DOUBT MOST OF SOUTH INDIAN GODS ARE CONVERTED FROM JAIN GODS.

MADURAI, KANCHIPURAM , THIRUVANMALAI, TIRUPATI ARE ALL THE PLACES WHICH ARE PROVEN JAIN CENTRES OF DRAVID TIME.


   Forward   |   Report abuse
The above message is part of the Discussion Board:
'Nobody has proved Ram didn't exist'