If the Constitution must be followed, and the criminal code is being followed because of the Constitution, why should the UCC not be implemented...? Why should Hindu men be forced to give up polygamy, but not Muslims? Sure, Hindus, too, take second and third "wives." Point is, when bigamy is proven, these ppl are liable for prosecution -- whereas a Muslim is not. Why shouldn't this discrimination gall a Hindu man...? Why should the Criminal Procedure Code be followed by Indian Muslims, but not a common civil code...? If I say to a Muslim, cool, take as many wives as you want, but then also get your hand lopped off for stealing as per the Shariat, in what way am I being irrational? Muslims can't have one and not have the other - as per their convenience and we r supposed to be some secular country which Hindus are trying to take over Nazi style, this is the peculiar version of Indian secularism and Muslims really r oppressed even though they can do as they want in India. USA is also secular but it seems Muslims have no problem with UCC in US, just shows the special privileges of Muslims in India.
