VAT
by Andy on May 11, 2005 10:51 AM Permalink

Hello,
Either i did'nt understand the colummn or there is a mistake.
Both Trader I & II have the same final sale price. So how can Trader I be overcharging.
I beleive the Sale price taken for Trader II is a wrong figure.
Pls clarify.
Regards
Andy

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