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Lawlessness... does its definition vary from Gujarat to West Bengal?
by vasu_erfolg on Dec 09, 2007 08:48 PM

While the congress sheds crocodile tears over the perceived "lawlessness" in Gujarat, what did they do when Nandigram was looted, burnt and raped? Was that supposed to be an epitome of "lawful" governance? Is there one set of rules for the BJP ruled states and a completely another set of rules for the commies? Why don't we then talk about the 1984 massacre of the Sikhs all over Indian and point out that the congress also has blood-stained hands?

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