The corrected version is printed below: What about the present value adjusted keeping in mind the inflation over the years (of purchase and sale)? Is it as simple as your buying a house for 1 million in 1990 and selling it for 3 million in 2005 & making a profit of 2 millions? In reality, it is less than 2 millions since there is a lot of devaluation over the last 15 years. Can anyone throw light on this?
